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Cloud Concepts, Design, & Architecture (17%):
- Explain the Cloud Reference Architecture – The candidates should develop an understanding of the Cloud computing activities, Cloud shared considerations, Cloud service categories, Cloud service capabilities, Cloud deployment models, and the effect of the associated technologies;
- Understand the principles of design of secure Cloud computing – This one focuses on the skills related to the Cloud secure data lifecycle, functional security prerequisites, cost-benefit analysis, Cloud-based disaster recovery & business continuity planning, and security considerations for various Cloud categories;
- Understand the concept of Cloud computing – This area requires the skills in the Cloud computing definitions, core characteristics of Cloud computing, Cloud computing roles, and building block technologies;
- Measure the Cloud service providers – This section requires your understanding of system & subsystem product certifications and verification against prerequisites.
- Understand the concepts of security that are appropriate for Cloud computing – This domain covers the skills in cryptography & key management, network security, common threats, virtualization security, access control, and media & data sanitization;
NEW QUESTION 47
Maintenance mode requires all of these actions except:
- A. Ensure logging continues
- B. Initiate enhanced security controls
- C. Remove all active production instances
- D. Prevent new logins
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
While the other answers are all steps in moving from normal operations to maintenance mode, we do not necessarily initiate any enhanced security controls.
NEW QUESTION 48
Database activity monitoring (DAM) can be:
- A. Used in place of data masking
- B. Used in the place of encryption
- C. Server-based or client-based
- D. Host-based or network-based
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
We don't use DAM in place of encryption or masking; DAM augments these options without replacing them. We don't usually think of the database interaction as client-server, so A is the best answer.
NEW QUESTION 49
What is a key component of GLBA?
Response:
- A. The right to audit
- B. The information security program
- C. The right to be forgotten
- D. EU Data Directives
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 50
The cloud customer will have the most control of their data and systems, and the cloud provider will have the least amount of responsibility, in which cloud computing arrangement?
- A. Community cloud
- B. IaaS
- C. SaaS
- D. PaaS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
IaaS entails the cloud customer installing and maintaining the OS, programs, and data; PaaS has the customer installing programs and data; in SaaS, the customer only uploads data. In a community cloud, data and device owners are distributed.
NEW QUESTION 51
Which of the following roles is responsible for obtaining new customers and securing contracts and agreements?
- A. Inter-cloud provider
- B. Cloud service broker
- C. Cloud auditor
- D. Cloud service developer
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The cloud service broker is responsible for obtaining new customers, analyzing the marketplace, and securing contracts and agreements.
NEW QUESTION 52
The European Union is often considered the world leader in regard to the privacy of personal data and has declared privacy to be a "human right." In what year did the EU first assert this principle?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The EU passed Directive 95/46 EC in 1995, which established data privacy as a human right. The other years listed are incorrect.
NEW QUESTION 53
The European Union passed the first major regulation declaring data privacy to be a human right. In what year did it go into effect?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
Adopted in 1995, Directive 95/46 EC establishes strong data protection and policy requirements, including the declaring of data privacy to be a human right. It establishes that an individual has the right to be notified when their personal data is being access or processed, that it only will ever be accessed for legitimate purposes, and that data will only be accessed to the exact extent it needs to be for the particular process or request.
NEW QUESTION 54
Which of the following are cloud computing roles?
- A. Cloud customer and financial auditor
- B. CSP and backup service provider
- C. Cloud service broker and user
- D. Cloud service auditor and object
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The following groups form the key roles and functions associated with cloud computing. They do not constitute an exhaustive list but highlight the main roles and functions within cloud computing:
- Cloud customer: An individual or entity that utilizes or subscribes to cloud based services or resources.
- CSP: A company that provides cloud-based platform, infrastructure, application, or storage services to other organizations or individuals, usually for a fee; otherwise known to clients "as a service.
- Cloud backup service provider: A third-party entity that manages and holds operational responsibilities for cloud-based data backup services and solutions to customers from a central data center.
- CSB: Typically a third-party entity or company that looks to extend or enhance value to multiple customers of cloud-based services through relationships with multiple CSPs. It acts as a liaison between cloud services customers and CSPs, selecting the best provider for each customer and monitoring the services. The CSB can be utilized as a "middleman" to broker the best deal and customize services to the customer's requirements.
May also resell cloud services.
- Cloud service auditor: Third-party organization that verifies attainment of SLAs.
NEW QUESTION 55
All of the following are usually nonfunctional requirements except ____________.
- A. Sound
- B. Function
- C. Color
- D. Security
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 56
A virtual network interface card (NIC) exists at layer __________ of the OSI model.
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 57
Which of the following is NOT a function performed by the record protocol of TLS?
- A. Authentication
- B. Compression
- C. Acceleration
- D. Encryption
Answer: C
Explanation:
The record protocol of TLS performs the authentication and encryption of data packets, and in some cases compression as well. It does not perform any acceleration functions.
NEW QUESTION 58
Which standards body depends heavily on contributions and input from its open membership base?
- A. ISO
- B. NIST
- C. ICANN
- D. CSA
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 59
Which United States law is focused on accounting and financial practices of organizations?
- A. Safe Harbor
- B. SOX
- C. GLBA
- D. HIPAA
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX) Act is not an act that pertains to privacy or IT security directly, but rather regulates accounting and financial practices used by organizations. It was passed to protect stakeholders and shareholders from improper practices and errors, and it sets forth rules for compliance, regulated and enforced by the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC). The main influence on IT systems and operations is the requirements it sets for data retention, specifically in regard to what types of records must be preserved and for how long.
NEW QUESTION 60
Which of the following is NOT one of the components of multifactor authentication?
- A. Something the user is
- B. Something the user knows
- C. Something the user sends
- D. Something the user has
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Multifactor authentication systems are composed of something the user knows, has, and/or is, not something the user sends. Multifactor authentication commonly uses something that a user knows, has, and/or is (such as biometrics or features).
NEW QUESTION 61
The Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Security, Trust, and Assurance Registry (STAR) program has __________ tiers.
Response:
- A. Eight
- B. Two
- C. Three
- D. Four
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 62
At which phase of the SDLC process should security begin participating?
Response:
- A. Requirements gathering
- B. Testing
- C. Requirements analysis
- D. Design
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 63
Which of the following is a risk associated with manual patching especially in the cloud?
Response:
- A. No notice before the impact is realized
- B. Lack of applicability to the environment
- C. Patches may or may not address the vulnerability they were designed to fix.
- D. The possibility for human error
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 64
Different types of audits are intended for different audiences, such as internal, external, regulatory, and so on.
Which of the following audits are considered "restricted use" versus being for a more broad audience?
- A. SOC Type 2
- B. SAS-70
- C. SOC Type 1
- D. SOC Type 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
SOC Type 1 reports are intended for restricted use, only to be seen by the actual service organization, its current clients, or its auditors. These reports are not intended for wider or public distribution.SAS-70 audit reports have been deprecated and are no longer in use, and both the SOC Type 2 and 3 reports are designed to expand upon the SOC Type 1 reports and are for broader audiences.
NEW QUESTION 65
Legal controls refer to which of the following?
- A. NIST 800-53r4
- B. PCI DSS
- C. ISO 27001
- D. Controls designed to comply with laws and regulations related to the cloud environment
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Legal controls are those controls that are designed to comply with laws and regulations whether they be local or international.
NEW QUESTION 66
Which of the following would be considered an example of insufficient due diligence leading to security or operational problems when moving to a cloud?
- A. Reliance on physical network controls
- B. Programming languages used
- C. Use of a remote key management system
- D. Monitoring
Answer: A
Explanation:
Many organizations in a traditional data center make heavy use of physical network controls for security.
Although this is a perfectly acceptable best practice in a traditional data center, this reliance is not something that will port to a cloud environment. The failure of an organization to properly understand and adapt to the difference in network controls when moving to a cloud will likely leave an application with security holes and vulnerabilities. The use of a remote key management system, monitoring, or certain programming languages would not constitute insufficient due diligence by itself.
NEW QUESTION 67
Which of the following best describes SAML?
Response:
- A. A standard for exchanging authentication and authorization data between security domains
- B. A standard for exchanging usernames and passwords across devices
- C. A standard for developing secure application management logistics
- D. A standard used for directory synchronization
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 68
Which of the following is not typically included in the list of critical assets specified for continuity during BCDR contingency operations?
- A. Cash
- B. Data
- C. Systems
- D. Personnel
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 69
Where is a DLP solution generally installed when utilized for monitoring data in use?
- A. Database server
- B. Network perimeter
- C. Application server
- D. User's client
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To monitor data in use, the DLP solution's optimal location would be on the user's client or workstation, where the data would be used or processed, and where it would be most vulnerable to access or exposure. The network perimeter is most appropriate for data in transit, and an application server would serve as middle stage between data at rest and data in use, but is a less correct answer than a user's client. A database server would be an example of a location appropriate for monitoring data at rest.
NEW QUESTION 70
All of the following are terms used to described the practice of obscuring original raw data so that only a portion is displayed for operational purposes, except:
- A. Masking
- B. Tokenization
- C. Data discovery
- D. Obfuscation
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 71
With an application hosted in a cloud environment, who could be the recipient of an eDiscovery order?
- A. Both the cloud provider and cloud customer
- B. The cloud provider
- C. Users
- D. The cloud customer
Answer: A
Explanation:
Either the cloud customer or the cloud provider could receive an eDiscovery order, and in almost all circumstances they would need to work together to ensure compliance.
NEW QUESTION 72
......
ISC CCSP candidate can face following threats
His academic background is limited since he is an IT professional and not a teacher or a trainer. The candidate was highly recommended by an employer and therefore likely to be more responsive to his/her opinion as compared to other parties. There are other eLearning programs in the market and this could hinder the candidate's credibility and credibility in future jobs. His comments have a negative effect on the candidate's credibility. The outcome would not be good if he does not manage to present himself as an IT professional with good skills who can teach eLearning courses in the Applied IT region.
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