[Aug-2024] Verified Cloud Security Alliance Exam Dumps with CCSK Exam Study Guide
Best Quality Cloud Security Alliance CCSK Exam Questions Dumpexams Realistic Practice Exams [2024]
Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSK) is a globally recognized certification that validates the understanding of foundational cloud security principles and best practices. The CCSK certification is designed for IT and security professionals who work with cloud-based technologies and services or are responsible for managing cloud security. Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (v4.0) Exam certification exam covers a broad range of topics, including cloud architecture, infrastructure security, data security, compliance, and legal issues.
The CCSK exam is a comprehensive certification that is designed to provide professionals with a comprehensive understanding of cloud security. Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (v4.0) Exam certification covers a wide range of topics and provides a comprehensive understanding of the various aspects of cloud security. Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (v4.0) Exam certification is recognized worldwide and is a valuable asset for professionals in the field of cloud computing.
NEW QUESTION # 47
GRC is responsibility of ______ in the all cloud services models
- A. Reseller
- B. Service Provider
- C. Customer
- D. Cloud Access Security Broker(CASB)
Answer: C
Explanation:
GRC and data is responsibility of the customer in all service models according to shared responsibility model.
NEW QUESTION # 48
"Standards like the SSAE16 have a defined scope. which includes both what is assessed (e.g. which of the provider's services) as well as which controls are assessed. A provider can thus "pass" an audit that doesn't include any security controls. which isn't overly useful for security and risk managers. " True or False?
- A. True
- B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
This is true, When cloud assessment is done, it is very important to understand the scope of the audit and the standard used. In statement above, we can see that, audit scope ofSSAE16 is decided by cloud provider and can be very limited and one may not be get full visilibility into the security of the cloud service provider.
NEW QUESTION # 49
An important consideration when performing a remote vulnerability test of a cloud-based application is to
- A. Use network layer testing tools exclusively
- B. Schedule vulnerability test at night
- C. Use techniques to evade cloud provider's detection systems
- D. Use application layer testing tools exclusively
- E. Obtain provider permission for test
Answer: E
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 50
In a cloud scenario. who is the data processor and who is the data controller?
- A. Database admin is the data controller and application owner is the data processor
- B. Cloud Service Provider is the data processor and its customer is the data controller
- C. Neither cloud service provider nor customer is data processor or data controller.
- D. Cloud Service Provider is the data controller and its customer is the data processor
Answer: B
Explanation:
The customer determines the ultimate purpose of the processing and decides on the outsourcing or the delegation of all or part of the concerned activities to external organizations. Therefore, the customer acts as a controller.
When the service provider supplies the means and the platform, acting on behalf of the customer, it is considered to be a data processor.
NEW QUESTION # 51
In which type of environment is it impractical to allow the customer to conduct their own audit, making it important that the data center operators are required to provide auditing for the customers?
- A. Distributed computing arrangements
- B. Multi-application, single tenant environments
- C. Long distance relationships
- D. Single tenant environments
- E. Multi-tenant environments
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION # 52
According to ISO 27018. data processor has explicit control over how CSPs are to use PII.
- A. True
- B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
In ISO 27018, it is the customer who has explicit right over how CSPs will use their information
NEW QUESTION # 53
Which of the following Standards is normally followed to manage Enterprise Risk?
- A. ISO 31000
- B. ISO 27005
- C. ISO 27032
- D. ISO 27001
Answer: A
Explanation:
ISO 31000 provides principles and guidelines to do Enterprise Risk Management.
NEW QUESTION # 54
CCM: In the CCM tool, a is a measure that modifies risk and includes any process, policy, device, practice or any other actions which modify risk.
- A. Risk Impact
- B. Domain
- C. Control Specification
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 55
Which layer is the most important for securing because it is considered to be the foundation for secure cloud operations?
- A. Infostructure
- B. Metastructure
- C. Infrastructure
- D. Datastructure
- E. Applistructure
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 56
Which of following is an exploit in which the attacker runs code on a VM that allows an operating system running within it to break out and interact directly with the hypervisor?
- A. VM HBR
- B. VM Escape
- C. VM rootkit
- D. VM DOS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Virtual machine escape is an exploit in which the attacker runs code on a VM that allows an operating system running within it to break out and interact directly with the hypervisor. Such an exploit could give the attacker access to the host operating system and all other virtual machines(VMs) running on that host.
NEW QUESTION # 57
Lack of CPU or network bandwidth and intermittent access to provisioned resources are examples of which of the following cloud risk?
- A. API vulnerabilities
- B. Software vulnerabilities
- C. Isolation failure
- D. Resource Exhaustion
Answer: D
Explanation:
They are all examples of resource exhaustion
NEW QUESTION # 58
When deploying Security as a Service in a highly regulated industry or environment, what should both parties agree on in advance and include in the SLA?
- A. The metrics defining the service level required to achieve regulatory objectives.
- B. The duration of time that a security violation can occur before the client begins assessing regulatory fines.
- C. The cost per incident for security breaches of regulated information.
- D. The type of security software which meets regulations and the number of licenses that will be needed.
- E. The regulations that are pertinent to the contract and how to circumvent them.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 59
Which of the following are key Data functions?
- A. Access, Procure & Store
- B. Access, Procure & Save
- C. Access, Process & Save
- D. Access, Process & Store
Answer: D
Explanation:
The key data functions are Access, process & Store
NEW QUESTION # 60
Which of the following processes plays a major role in managing system vulnerabilities?
- A. Incident Management
- B. Release Management
- C. Patch Management
- D. Capacity Management
Answer: C
Explanation:
Although other process are part of overall security strategy proper patch management plays key role in keeping control on system vulnerabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 61
Ensuring the use of data and information complies with organizational policies, standards and strategy- including regulatory, contractual, and business objectives, known as:
- A. IT Governance
- B. Data Governance
- C. Enterprise Governance
- D. Corporate Governance
Answer: B
Explanation:
It is definition of Data Governance
NEW QUESTION # 62
Amount of risk that the leadership and stakeholders of an organization are willing to accept. is known as:
- A. Risk Avoidance
- B. Residual Risk
- C. Risk Limitation
- D. Risk Tolerance
Answer: D
Explanation:
Risk tolerance is the amount of risk that the leadership and stakeholders of an organization are willing to accept.
NEW QUESTION # 63
Code execution environments that run within an operating system. sharing and leveraging resources of that operating system is called :
- A. Virtual Machine
- B. Instance
- C. Sandbox
- D. Container
Answer: D
Explanation:
Containers are code execution environments that run within an operating system(for now), sharing and leveraging resources of that operating system. While a VM is a full abstraction of an operating system, a container is a constrained place to run segregated processes while still utilizing the kernel and other capabilities of the base 0S. Multiple containers can run on the same virtual machine or be implemented without the use of VMs at all and run directly on hardware.
Reference: CSA Security Guidelines V.4(reproduced here for the educational purpose)
NEW QUESTION # 64
What would you call logic/procedures running on a shared database platform as?
- A. Virtual Machine
- B. Serverless Computing
- C. Platform-based Workload
- D. Container
Answer: C
Explanation:
Platform-based workloads: This is a more complex category that covers workloads running on a shared platform that aren't virtual machines or containers, such as logic/procedures running on a shared database platform. Imagine a stored procedure running inside a multitenant database, or a machine- learning job running on a machine-learning Platform as a Service. Isolation and security are totally the responsibility of the platform provider, although the provider may expose certain security options and controls.
Reference: CSA Security GuidelinesV.4(reproduced here for the educational purpose)
NEW QUESTION # 65
Which of the following reports is of most interest to the customer but may not be provided by Cloud Service Provider?
- A. SOC1 Type I
- B. SOC2 Type I
- C. SOC3
- D. SOC2 Type II
Answer: D
Explanation:
SOC2 Type II is the report which will be of lot of interest to the customers but it will not be provided by the cloud service provider as it may release lot of information about security controls put in place which can harm cloud service providers infrastructure adversely.
SOC2 Type II is a report on management's description of the service organisation's system and the suitability of the design and operating effectiveness of the controls
NEW QUESTION # 66
What is defined as the process by which an opposing party may obtain private documents for use in litigation?
- A. Custody
- B. Scope
- C. Risk Assessment
- D. Discovery
- E. Subpoena
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 67
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