Best Way To Study For ISACA Cybersecurity-Audit-Certificate Exam Brilliant Cybersecurity-Audit-Certificate Exam Questions PDF
Updated Verified Pass Cybersecurity-Audit-Certificate Exam - Real Questions and Answers
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which of the following is an example of an application security control?
- A. Security operations center
- B. Intrusion detection
- C. Secure coding
- D. User security awareness training
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
An example of an application security control is secure coding. Secure coding is the practice of developing software applications that follow security principles and standards to prevent or mitigate common vulnerabilities and risks. Secure coding involves applying techniques such as input validation, output encoding, error handling, encryption, and testing.
NEW QUESTION # 43
Which of the following are politically motivated hackers who target specific individuals or organizations to achieve various ideological ends?
- A. Script kiddies
- B. Cybercriminals
- C. Hacktivists
- D. Malware researchers
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Hacktivists are politically motivated hackers who target specific individuals or organizations to achieve various ideological ends. They may use various methods such as defacing websites, launching denial-of-service attacks, leaking confidential information, or spreading propaganda to advance their causes or protest against perceived injustices.
NEW QUESTION # 44
Which of the following features of continuous auditing provides the BEST level of assurance over traditional sampling?
- A. Continuous auditing tools are less complex for auditors to manage.
- B. Automated tools provide more reliability than an auditors personal judgment
- C. Voluminous dale can be analyzed at a high speed to show relevant patterns.
- D. Reports can be generated more frequently for management.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The feature of continuous auditing that provides the BEST level of assurance over traditional sampling is that voluminous data can be analyzed at a high speed to show relevant patterns. This is because continuous auditing is a technique that uses automated tools and processes to perform audit activities on a continuous or near-real-time basis, and to analyze large amounts of data from various sources and systems. Continuous auditing helps to provide a higher level of assurance than traditional sampling, by covering the entire population of transactions or events, rather than a subset or sample, and by identifying trends, anomalies, or exceptions that may indicate risks or issues. The other options are not features of continuous auditing that provide the best level of assurance over traditional sampling, but rather different aspects or benefits of continuous auditing, such as reporting frequency (A), reliability (B), or complexity (D).
NEW QUESTION # 45
Which of the following should an IS auditor do FIRST to ensure cyber security-related legal and regulatory requirements are followed by an organization?
- A. Determine if the cybersecurity program is mapped to relevant legal and regulatory requirements.
- B. Determine if there is a formal process to review changes in legal and regulatory requirements.
D Obtain a list of relevant legal and regulatory requirements. - C. Review the most recent legal and regulatory audit report conducted by an independent party.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The FIRST thing that an IS auditor should do to ensure cyber security-related legal and regulatory requirements are followed by an organization is to determine if the cybersecurity program is mapped to relevant legal and regulatory requirements. This is because mapping the cybersecurity program to relevant legal and regulatory requirements helps to ensure that the organization has identified and addressed all the applicable laws and regulations that affect its cybersecurity posture, such as data protection, privacy, breach notification, etc. Mapping the cybersecurity program to relevant legal and regulatory requirements also helps to evaluate the alignment and compliance of the organization's cybersecurity policies, procedures, controls, and practices with the legal and regulatory requirements. The other options are not the first thing that an IS auditor should do to ensure cyber security-related legal and regulatory requirements are followed by an organization, but rather follow after determining if the cybersecurity program is mapped to relevant legal and regulatory requirements, such as reviewing the most recent legal and regulatory audit report (B), determining if there is a formal process to review changes in legal and regulatory requirements C, or obtaining a list of relevant legal and regulatory requirements (D).
NEW QUESTION # 46
The second line of defense in cybersecurity includes:
- A. separate reporting to the audit committee within the organization.
- B. risk management monitoring, and measurement of controls.
- C. conducting organization-wide control self-assessments.
- D. performing attack and breach penetration testing.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The second line of defense in cybersecurity includes risk management monitoring, and measurement of controls. This is because the second line of defense is responsible for ensuring that the first line of defense (the operational managers and staff who own and manage risks) is effectively designed and operating as intended.
The second line of defense also provides guidance, oversight, and challenge to the first line of defense. The other options are not part of the second line of defense, but rather belong to the first line of defense (A), the third line of defense C, or an external service provider (D).
NEW QUESTION # 47
Which of the following describes specific, mandatory controls or rules to support and comply with a policy?
- A. Standards
- B. Frameworks
- C. Basedine
- D. Guidelines
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Specific, mandatory controls or rules to support and comply with a policy are known as standards. This is because standards define the minimum level of performance or behavior that is expected from an organization or its employees in order to achieve a policy objective or requirement. Standards also provide clear and measurable criteria for auditing and monitoring compliance with policies. The other options are not specific, mandatory controls or rules to support and comply with a policy, but rather different types of documents or tools that provide guidance or recommendations for implementing policies or controls, such as frameworks (A), guidelines (B), or baselines C.
NEW QUESTION # 48
Which of the following is the GREATEST risk pertaining to sensitive data leakage when users set mobile devices to "always on" mode?
- A. Authorization tokens could be exploited.
- B. A user's behavior pattern can be predicted.
- C. Mobile connectivity could be severely weakened.
- D. An adversary can predict a user's login credentials.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The GREATEST risk pertaining to sensitive data leakage when users set mobile devices to "always on" mode is that authorization tokens could be exploited. Authorization tokens are pieces of data that are used to authenticate users and grant them access to certain resources or services. Authorization tokens are often stored on mobile devices to enable seamless and convenient access without requiring users to enter their credentials repeatedly. However, if users set their mobile devices to "always on" mode, they increase the risk of losing their devices or having them stolen by attackers. Attackers can then access the authorization tokens stored on the devices and use them to impersonate the users or access their sensitive data.
NEW QUESTION # 49
A healthcare organization recently acquired another firm that outsources its patient information processing to a third-party Software as a Service (SaaS) provider. From a regulatory perspective, which of the following is MOST important for the healthcare organization to determine?
- A. Incident escalation procedures
- B. Encryption algorithms used to encrypt the data
- C. Cybersecurity risk assessment methodology
- D. Physical location of the data
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
From a regulatory perspective, the MOST important thing for the healthcare organization to determine when outsourcing its patient information processing to a third-party Software as a Service (SaaS) provider is the incident escalation procedures. This is because incident escalation procedures define how security incidents involving patient information are reported, communicated, escalated, and resolved between the healthcare organization and the SaaS provider. This is essential for complying with regulatory requirements such as HIPAA, which mandate timely notification and response to breaches of protected health information. The other options are not as important as incident escalation procedures from a regulatory perspective, because they either relate to technical aspects that may not affect compliance (A, B), or operational aspects that may not affect patient information security (D).
NEW QUESTION # 50
Which of the following cloud characteristics refers to resource utilization that can be optimized by leveraging charge-per-use capabilities?
- A. On demand self-service
- B. Elasticity
- C. Resource pooling
- D. Measured service
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The cloud characteristic that refers to resource utilization that can be optimized by leveraging charge-per-use capabilities is measured service. This is because measured service is a characteristic of cloud computing that involves monitoring, controlling, and reporting on the usage and consumption of cloud resources by cloud providers and consumers. Measured service helps to optimize resource utilization by leveraging charge-per-use capabilities, which means that cloud consumers only pay for the amount of resources that they actually use or consume, rather than paying for fixed or predetermined amounts of resources. The other options are not cloud characteristics that refer to resource utilization that can be optimized by leveraging charge-per-use capabilities, but rather different characteristics of cloud computing that describe other aspects or benefits of cloud services, such as on demand self-service (A), elasticity (B), or resource pooling (D).
NEW QUESTION # 51
Which of the following is a passive activity that could be used by an attacker during reconnaissance to gather information about an organization?
- A. Using open source discovery
- B. Scanning the network perimeter
- C. Crafting counterfeit websites
- D. Social engineering
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A passive activity that could be used by an attacker during reconnaissance to gather information about an organization is using open source discovery. This is because open source discovery is a technique that involves collecting and analyzing publicly available information about an organization, such as its website, social media, press releases, annual reports, etc. Open source discovery does not require any direct interaction or communication with the target organization or its systems or network, and therefore does not generate any traffic or alerts that could be detected by the organization's security controls. The other options are not passive activities that could be used by an attacker during reconnaissance to gather information about an organization, but rather active activities that involve direct or indirect interaction or communication with the target organization or its systems or network, such as scanning the network perimeter (B), social engineering C, or crafting counterfeit websites (D).
NEW QUESTION # 52
What is the FIRST phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments?
- A. Hands-on testing
- B. Risk-based shakeout
- C. Evaluation of implementation details
- D. Inventory and discovery
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The FIRST phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments is inventory and discovery. This is because the inventory and discovery phase helps auditors to identify and document the scope, objectives, and approach of the audit, as well as the cryptographic assets, systems, processes, and stakeholders involved in the cryptographic environment. The inventory and discovery phase also helps auditors to assess the maturity and effectiveness of the cryptographic governance and management within the organization. The other phases are not the first phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments, but rather follow after the inventory and discovery phase, such as evaluation of implementation details (A), hands-on testing (B), or risk-based shakeout C.
NEW QUESTION # 53
Which of the following BIST enables continuous identification and mitigation of security threats to an organization?
- A. Security information and event management (SEM)
- B. Security training and awareness
- C. demit/ and access management (1AM)
- D. Security operations center (SOC)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A security operations center (SOC) is a centralized unit that monitors, detects, analyzes, and responds to cyber threats and incidents in real time. A SOC enables continuous identification and mitigation of security threats to an organization by using various tools, processes, and expertise.
NEW QUESTION # 54
A cloud service provider is used to perform analytics on an organization's sensitive data. A data leakage incident occurs in the service providers network from a regulatory perspective, who is responsible for the data breach?
- A. The organization
- B. Dependent upon the nature of breath
- C. Dependent upon specific regulatory requirements
- D. The service provider
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A cloud service provider is used to perform analytics on an organization's sensitive data. A data leakage incident occurs in the service provider's network. From a regulatory perspective, the organization is responsible for the data breach. This is because the organization is the data owner and has the ultimate accountability and liability for the security and privacy of its data, regardless of where it is stored or processed.
The organization cannot transfer or delegate its responsibility to the service provider, even if there is a contractual agreement or service level agreement that specifies the security obligations of the service provider.
The other options are not correct, because they either imply that the service provider is responsible (A), or that the responsibility depends on the nature of breach (B) or specific regulatory requirements C, which are not relevant factors.
NEW QUESTION # 55
Which of the following devices is at GREATEST risk from activity monitoring and data retrieval?
- A. Cloud storage devices
- B. Printing devices
- C. Desktop workstation
- D. Mobile devices
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The device that is at GREATEST risk from activity monitoring and data retrieval is mobile devices. This is because mobile devices are devices that are portable, wireless, and connected to the Internet or other networks, such as smartphones, tablets, laptops, etc. Mobile devices are at greatest risk from activity monitoring and data retrieval, because they can be easily lost, stolen, or compromised by attackers who can access or extract the data stored or transmitted on the devices. Mobile devices can also be subject to activity monitoring and data retrieval by third-party applications or services that may collect or share the user's personal or sensitive information without their consent or knowledge. The other options are not devices that are at greatest risk from activity monitoring and data retrieval, but rather different types of devices that may have different levels of risk or protection from activity monitoring and data retrieval, such as cloud storage devices (B), desktop workstations C, or printing devices (D).
NEW QUESTION # 56
Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization's vulnerability management process is operating effectively?
- A. The vulnerability program is formally approved
- B. The vulnerability program is reviewed annually.
- C. Remediation efforts are communicated to management
- D. Remediation efforts are prioritized.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The BEST indication that an organization's vulnerability management process is operating effectively is that remediation efforts are prioritized. This is because prioritizing remediation efforts helps to ensure that the most critical and urgent vulnerabilities are addressed first, based on their severity, impact, and exploitability.
Prioritizing remediation efforts also helps to optimize the use of resources and time for mitigating vulnerabilities and reducing risks. The other options are not as indicative of an effective vulnerability management process, because they either involve communicating (A), approving (B), or reviewing C aspects that are not directly related to remediating vulnerabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 57
What would be an IS auditor's BEST response to an IT managers statement that the risk associated with the use of mobile devices in an organizational setting is the same as for any other device?
- A. The risk associated with mobile devices is less than that of other devices and systems.
- B. Replication of privileged access and the greater likelihood of physical loss increases risk levels.
- C. The ability to wipe mobile devices and disable connectivity adequately mitigates additional
- D. The risk associated with mobile devices cannot be mitigated with similar controls for workstations.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The BEST response to an IT manager's statement that the risk associated with the use of mobile devices in an organizational setting is the same as for any other device is that replication of privileged access and the greater likelihood of physical loss increases risk levels. Mobile devices pose unique risks to an organization due to their portability, connectivity, and functionality. Mobile devices may store or access sensitive data or systems that require privileged access, which can be compromised if the device is lost, stolen, or hacked. Mobile devices also have a higher chance of being misplaced or taken by unauthorized parties than other devices.
NEW QUESTION # 58
One way to control the integrity of digital assets is through the use of:
- A. frameworks.
- B. caching
- C. policies.
- D. hashing.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
One way to control the integrity of digital assets is through the use of hashing. This is because hashing is a technique that applies a mathematical function to a digital asset, such as a file or a message, and produces a unique and fixed-length value, known as a hash or a digest. Hashing helps to verify the integrity of digital assets, by comparing the hash values before and after transmission or storage, and detecting any changes or modifications to the original asset. The other options are not ways to control the integrity of digital assets, but rather different concepts or techniques that are related to information security, such as policies (A), frameworks (B), or caching C.
NEW QUESTION # 59
Which of the following is a MAIN benefit of using Security as a Service (SECaaS) providers?
- A. Available security services from providers are affordable to enterprises of all sizes.
- B. Enterprises can use the latest technologies to counter threats that are constantly evolving.
- C. Significant investments and specialized security skills are not required.
- D. SECaaS providers are compliant with specific security requirements and new regulations.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A MAIN benefit of using Security as a Service (SECaaS) providers is that significant investments and specialized security skills are not required. SECaaS is a type of cloud service model that provides security solutions and services to customers over the internet. SECaaS providers can offer various security functions such as antivirus, firewall, encryption, identity management, vulnerability scanning, and incident response. By using SECaaS providers, customers can save costs and resources on acquiring, maintaining, and updating security hardware and software. Customers can also leverage the expertise and experience of the SECaaS providers to address their security needs and challenges.
NEW QUESTION # 60
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