CS0-003 Practice Test Questions Answers Updated 622 Questions
CS0-003 dumps & CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst Sure Practice with 622 Questions
The cyber incident response domain covers the identification, analysis, and response to cybersecurity incidents, while the compliance and assessment domain involves understanding and implementing the various laws, regulations, and compliance requirements. Passing the CompTIA CySA+ certification exam can boost your career prospects in the cybersecurity field, as it validates your knowledge and skills in cybersecurity analysis, helping you stand out from the rest of the competition.
CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification exam, also known as CS0-003, is a 165-minute exam that consists of 85 multiple-choice and performance-based questions. CS0-003 exam is designed to test the candidate's ability to identify, analyze, and respond to security threats and incidents. CS0-003 exam covers a wide range of topics, including network security, security operations and monitoring, threat intelligence, and incident response.
NEW QUESTION # 56
A healthcare organization must develop an action plan based on the findings from a risk assessment. The action plan must consist of:
Risk categorization
Risk prioritization
. Implementation of controls
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on the audit report, risk matrix, and SLA expectations documents to review their contents.
On the Risk categorization tab, determine the order in which the findings must be prioritized for remediation according to the risk rating score. Then, assign a categorization to each risk.
On the Controls tab, select the appropriate control(s) to implement for each risk finding.
Findings may have more than one control implemented. Some controls may be used more than once or not at all.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the solution below in Explanation.
NEW QUESTION # 57
A security analyst is trying to identify anomalies on the network routing. Which of the following functions can the analyst use on a shell script to achieve the objective most accurately?
- A. function x() { info=$(traceroute -m 40 $1 | awk 'END{print $1}') && echo "$1 | $info" }
- B. function x() { info=$(dig $(dig -x $1 | grep PTR | tail -n 1 | awk -F ".in-addr" '{print $1}
').origin.asn.cymru.com TXT +short) && echo "$1 | $info" } - C. function x() { info=$(ping -c 1 $1 | awk -F "/" 'END{print $5}') && echo "$1 | $info" }
- D. function x() { info=$(geoiplookup $1) && echo "$1 | $info" }
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The function that can be used on a shell script to identify anomalies on the network routing most accurately is:
function x() { info=(dig(dig -x $1 | grep PTR | tail -n 1 | awk -F ".in-addr" '{print $1} ').origin.asn.cymru.com TXT +short) && echo "$1 | $info" } This function takes an IP address as an argument and performs two DNS lookups using the dig command. The first lookup uses the -x option to perform a reverse DNS lookup and get the hostname associated with the IP address. The second lookup uses the origin.asn.cymru.com domain to get the autonomous system number (ASN) and other information related to the IP address. The function then prints the IP address and the ASN information, which can help identify any routing anomalies or inconsistencies
NEW QUESTION # 58
After reviewing the final report for a penetration test, a cybersecurity analyst prioritizes the remediation for input validation vulnerabilities. Which of the following attacks is the analyst seeking to prevent?
- A. DNS poisoning
- B. Cross-site scripting
- C. Pharming
- D. Phishing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Input validation vulnerabilities occur when an application fails to properly validate or sanitize user input, allowing malicious data to be processed. This can lead to various attacks, most notably cross-site scripting (XSS).
Option A: DNS poisoning
* Incorrect Choice: DNS poisoning involves corrupting the DNS cache to redirect users to malicious sites. It is not related to input validation vulnerabilities.
Option B: Pharming
* Incorrect Choice: Pharming redirects users from legitimate websites to fraudulent ones, typically through DNS poisoning or host file manipulation. It is not directly related to input validation.
Option C: Phishing
* Incorrect Choice: Phishing involves tricking individuals into providing sensitive information through deceptive emails or websites. It exploits human behavior rather than technical input validation flaws.
Option D: Cross-site scripting
* Correct Choice: Cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks occur when an application includes untrusted data in a web page without proper validation or escaping. This allows attackers to execute malicious scripts in users' browsers, leading to data theft, session hijacking, or defacement. Remediating input validation vulnerabilities is essential to prevent XSS attacks.
NEW QUESTION # 59
Which of the following can be used to learn more about TTPs used by cybercriminals?
- A. ZenMAP
- B. MITRE ATT&CK
- C. National Institute of Standards and Technology
- D. theHarvester
Answer: B
Explanation:
MITRE ATT&CK is a globally accessible knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations. It is used as a foundation for the development of specific threat models and methodologies in the private sector, in government, and in the cybersecurity product and service community. It can help security professionals understand, detect, and mitigate cyber threats by providing a comprehensive framework of TTPs.
NEW QUESTION # 60
A cybersecurity analyst is reviewing SIEM logs and observes consistent requests originating from an internal host to a blocklisted external server. Which of the following best describes the activity that is taking place?
- A. Scanning
- B. Data exfiltration
- C. Beaconing
- D. Rogue device
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Beaconing is the best term to describe the activity that is taking place, as it refers to the periodic communication between an infected host and a blocklisted external server. Beaconing is a common technique used by malware to establish a connection with a command-and-control (C2) server, which can provide instructions, updates, or exfiltration capabilities to the malware. Beaconing can vary in frequency, duration, and payload, depending on the type and sophistication of the malware. The other terms are not as accurate as beaconing, as they describe different aspects of malicious activity. Data exfiltration is the unauthorized transfer of data from a compromised system to an external destination, such as a C2 server or a cloud storage service. Data exfiltration can be a goal or a consequence of malware infection, but it does not necessarily involve blocklisted servers or consistent requests. Rogue device is a device that is connected to a network without authorization or proper security controls. Rogue devices can pose a security risk, as they can introduce malware, bypass firewalls, or access sensitive data. However, rogue devices are not necessarily infected with malware or communicating with blocklisted servers. Scanning is the process of probing a network or a system for vulnerabilities, open ports, services, or other information. Scanning can be performed by legitimate administrators or malicious actors, depending on the intent and authorization. Scanning does not imply consistent requests or blocklisted servers, as it can target any network or system.
NEW QUESTION # 61
An analyst views the following log entries:
The organization has a partner vendor with hosts in the 216.122.5.x range. This partner vendor is required to have access to monthly reports and is the only external vendor with authorized access. The organization prioritizes incident investigation according to the following hierarchy: unauthorized data disclosure is more critical than denial of service attempts.
which are more important than ensuring vendor data access.
Based on the log files and the organization's priorities, which of the following hosts warrants additional investigation?
- A. 134.17.188.5
- B. 121.19.30.221
- C. 216.122.5.5
- D. 202.180.1582
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. 121.19.30.221.
Based on the log files and the organization's priorities, the host that warrants additional investigation is
121.19.30.221, because it is the only host that accessed a file containing sensitive data and is not from the partner vendor's range.
The log files show the following information:
* The IP addresses of the hosts that accessed the web server
* The date and time of the access
* The file path of the requested resource
* The number of bytes transferred
The organization's priorities are:
* Unauthorized data disclosure is more critical than denial of service attempts
* Denial of service attempts are more important than ensuring vendor data access According to these priorities, the most serious threat to the organization is unauthorized data disclosure, which occurs when sensitive, protected, or confidential data is copied, transmitted, viewed, stolen, altered, or used by an individual unauthorized to do so123. Therefore, the host that accessed a file containing sensitive data and is not from the partner vendor's range poses the highest risk to the organization.
The file that contains sensitive data is /reports/2023/financials.pdf, as indicated by its name and path. This file was accessed by two hosts: 121.19.30.221 and 216.122.5.5. However, only 121.19.30.221 is not from the partner vendor's range, which is 216.122.5.x. Therefore, 121.19.30.221 is a potential unauthorized data disclosure threat and warrants additional investigation.
The other hosts do not warrant additional investigation based on the log files and the organization's priorities.
Host 134.17.188.5 accessed /index.html multiple times in a short period of time, which could indicate a denial of service attempt by flooding the web server with requests45. However, denial of service attempts are less critical than unauthorized data disclosure according to the organization's priorities, and there is no evidence that this host succeeded in disrupting the web server's normal operations.
Host 202.180.1582 accessed /images/logo.png once, which does not indicate any malicious activity or threat to the organization.
Host 216.122.5.5 accessed /reports/2023/financials.pdf once, which could indicate unauthorized data disclosure if it was not authorized to do so. However, this host is from the partner vendor's range, which is required to have access to monthly reports and is the only external vendor with authorized access according to the organization's requirements.
Therefore, based on the log files and the organization's priorities, host 121.19.30.221 warrants additional investigation as it poses the highest risk of unauthorized data disclosure to the organization.
NEW QUESTION # 62
An organization conducted a web application vulnerability assessment against the corporate website, and the following output was observed:
Which of the following tuning recommendations should the security analyst share?
- A. Block requests without an X-Frame-Options header.
- B. Configure an Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to authorized domains.
- C. Disable the cross-origin resource sharing header.
- D. Set an Http Only flag to force communication by HTTPS.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The output shows that the web application has a cross-origin resource sharing (CORS) header that allows any origin to access its resources. This is a security misconfiguration that could allow malicious websites to make requests to the web application on behalf of the user and access sensitive data or perform unauthorized actions. The tuning recommendation is to configure the Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to only allow authorized domains that need to access the web application's resources. This would prevent unauthorized cross-origin requests and reduce the risk of cross-site request forgery (CSRF) attacks.
NEW QUESTION # 63
A security analyst reviews the following extract of a vulnerability scan that was performed against the web server:
Which of the following recommendations should the security analyst provide to harden the web server?
- A. Disable tcp_wrappers.
- B. Close port 22.
- C. Delete the /wp-login.php folder.
- D. Remove the version information on http-server-header.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The vulnerability scan shows that the version information is visible in the http-server-header, which can be exploited by attackers to identify vulnerabilities specific to that version. Removing or obfuscating this information can enhance security.
NEW QUESTION # 64
A company recently experienced a security incident. The security team has determined a user clicked on a link embedded in a phishing email that was sent to the entire company. The link resulted in a malware download, which was subsequently installed and run.
INSTRUCTIONS
Part 1
Review the artifacts associated with the security incident. Identify the name of the malware, the malicious IP address, and the date and time when the malware executable entered the organization.
Part 2
Review the kill chain items and select an appropriate control for each that would improve the security posture of the organization and would have helped to prevent this incident from occurring. Each control may only be used once, and not all controls will be used.
Firewall log:
File integrity Monitoring Report:
Malware domain list:
Vulnerability Scan Report:
Phishing Email:
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation:
A screenshot of a computer Description automatically generated
NEW QUESTION # 65
During a security test, a security analyst found a critical application with a buffer overflow vulnerability. Which of the following would be best to mitigate the vulnerability at the application level?
- A. Perform OS hardening.
- B. Configure address space layout randomization.
- C. Update third-party dependencies.
- D. Implement input validation.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Implementing input validation is the best way to mitigate the buffer overflow vulnerability at the application level. Input validation is a technique that checks the data entered by users or attackers against a set of rules or constraints, such as data type, length, format, or range. Input validation can prevent common web application attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), or command injection, which exploit the lack of input validation to execute malicious code or commands on the server or the client side. By validating the input before allowing submission, the web application can reject or sanitize any malicious or unexpected input, and protect the application from being compromised.
NEW QUESTION # 66
A security analyst was transferred to an organization's threat-hunting team to track specific activity throughout the enterprise environment. The analyst must observe and assess the number to times this activity occurs and aggregate the results.
Which of the following is the BEST threat-hunting method for the analyst to use?
- A. Searching
- B. Clustering
- C. Grouping
- D. Stack counting
Answer: D
Explanation:
Stack counting is a threat-hunting technique that involves monitoring a specific event or activity, counting the number of times it occurs, and then aggregating those results over time. This technique is useful for identifying patterns of behavior that may indicate a threat actor is active in the environment.
NEW QUESTION # 67
Patches for two highly exploited vulnerabilities were released on the same Friday afternoon. Information about the systems and vulnerabilities is shown in the tables below:
Which of the following should the security analyst prioritize for remediation?
- A. brees
- B. brady
- C. rogers
- D. manning
Answer: B
Explanation:
Brady should be prioritized for remediation, as it has the highest risk score and the highest number of affected users. The risk score is calculated by multiplying the CVSS score by the exposure factor, which is the percentage of systems that are vulnerable to the exploit. Brady has a risk score of 9 x 0.8 = 7.2, which is higher than any other system. Brady also has 500 affected users, which is more than any other system. Therefore, patching brady would reduce the most risk and impact for the organization. The other systems have lower risk scores and lower numbers of affected users, so they can be remediated later.
NEW QUESTION # 68
A company recently experienced a security incident. The security team has determined a user clicked on a link embedded in a phishing email that was sent to the entire company. The link resulted in a malware download, which was subsequently installed and run.
INSTRUCTIONS
Part 1
Review the artifacts associated with the security incident. Identify the name of the malware, the malicious IP address, and the date and time when the malware executable entered the organization.
Part 2
Review the kill chain items and select an appropriate control for each that would improve the security posture of the organization and would have helped to prevent this incident from occurring. Each control may only be used once, and not all controls will be used.
Firewall log:
File integrity Monitoring Report:
Malware domain list:
Vulnerability Scan Report:
Phishing Email:
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation:
A screenshot of a computer Description automatically generated
NEW QUESTION # 69
Which of the following is a commonly used four-component framework to communicate threat actor behavior?
- A. Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis
- B. Cyber Kill Chain
- C. STRIDE
- D. MITRE ATT&CK
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis is a framework that describes the relationship between four components of a cyberattack: adversary, capability, infrastructure, and victim. It helps analysts understand the behavior and motivation of threat actors, as well as the tools and methods they use to compromise their targets12. References: Main Analytical Frameworks for Cyber Threat Intelligence, section 4; Strategies, tools, and frameworks for building an effective threat intelligence team, section 3.
NEW QUESTION # 70
Which of the following threat-hunting concepts is most concerned with identifying the behaviors of the bad actor?
- A. Indicators of compromise
- B. Tactics, techniques, and procedures
- C. Insider threat analysis
- D. Threat intelligence sharing
Answer: A
Explanation:
TTPs focus on the characteristic behaviors and methods adversaries use during an attack, making them central to understanding and hunting for malicious activity.
NEW QUESTION # 71
The security team reviews a web server for XSS and runs the following Nmap scan:
Which of the following most accurately describes the result of the scan?
- A. The vulnerable parameter and characters > and " with a reflected XSS attempt
- B. An output of characters > and " as the parameters used m the attempt
- C. The vulnerable parameter ID hccp://l72.31.15.2/1.php?id-2 and unfiltered characters returned
- D. The vulnerable parameter and unfiltered or encoded characters passed > and " as unsafe
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A cross-site scripting (XSS) attack is a type of web application attack that injects malicious code into a web page that is then executed by the browser of a victim user. A reflected XSS attack is a type of XSS attack where the malicious code is embedded in a URL or a form parameter that is sent to the web server and then reflected back to the user's browser. In this case, the Nmap scan shows that the web server is vulnerable to a reflected XSS attack, as it returns the characters > and " without any filtering or encoding. The vulnerable parameter is id in the URL http://172.31.15.2/1.php?id=2.
NEW QUESTION # 72
An organization enabled a SIEM rule to send an alert to a security analyst distribution list when ten failed logins occur within one minute. However, the control was unable to detect an attack with nine failed logins. Which of the following best represents what occurred?
- A. True negative
- B. True positive
- C. False negative
- D. False positive
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 73
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