The Best CompTIA CS0-003 Study Guides and Dumps of 2025
Top CompTIA CS0-003 Exam Audio Study Guide! Practice Questions Edition
The CySA+ certification validates the skills needed to defend and protect an organization's systems and networks from cyber threats. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification emphasizes the importance of applying analytics and intelligence to identify potential threats and vulnerabilities. CS0-003 exam covers various topics such as incident response, security operations and monitoring, threat intelligence, and vulnerability management. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification also emphasizes hands-on experience and practical skills, ensuring that individuals who pass the exam are well-equipped to handle real-world cybersecurity scenarios.
CompTIA CS0-003 certification exam is a valuable certification for cybersecurity analysts who want to advance their careers. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification exam is designed to test a candidate's ability to perform cybersecurity analysis and respond to threats. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification exam covers various topics such as network security, threat management, security operations, and incident response. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification exam is computer-based and can be taken at any Pearson VUE testing center.
Cybersecurity is a rapidly growing field, and the CompTIA CySA+ certification is an important credential for IT professionals who want to stay ahead of the curve. The CySA+ exam is a challenging test that covers a wide range of topics related to cybersecurity, and passing the exam demonstrates a candidate's ability to identify and respond to security threats and vulnerabilities. The CySA+ certification is recognized globally and is a requirement for many cybersecurity jobs, making it a valuable investment for IT professionals who are looking to advance their careers.
NEW QUESTION # 227
A Chief Information Security Officer wants to implement security by design, starting with the implementation of a security scanning method to identify vulnerabilities, including SQL injection, RFI, XSS, etc. Which of the following would most likely meet the requirement?
- A. Known environment testing
- B. Dynamic application security testing
- C. Code debugging
- D. Reverse engineering
Answer: B
Explanation:
Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) is used to detect vulnerabilities in running applications, including common issues like SQL injection, FRI, XSS, etc. It aligns with the goal of implementing security by design.
NEW QUESTION # 228
Which of the following describes the best reason for conducting a root cause analysis?
- A. The root cause analysis ensures that proper timelines were documented.
- B. The root cause analysis allows the incident to be properly documented for reporting.
- C. The root cause analysis develops recommendations to improve the process.
- D. The root cause analysis identifies the contributing items that facilitated the event
Answer: D
Explanation:
The root cause analysis identifies the contributing items that facilitated the event is the best reason for conducting a root cause analysis, as it reflects the main goal and benefit of this problem-solving approach. A root cause analysis (RCA) is a process of discovering the root causes of problems in order to identify appropriate solutions. A root cause is the core issue or factor that sets in motion the entire cause-and-effect chain that leads to the problem. A root cause analysis assumes that it is more effective to systematically prevent and solve underlying issues rather than just treating symptoms or putting out fires. A root cause analysis can be performed using various methods, tools, and techniques that help to uncover the causes of problems, such as events and causal factor analysis, change analysis, barrier analysis, or fishbone diagrams. A root cause analysis can help to improve quality, performance, safety, or efficiency by finding and eliminating the sources of problems. The other options are not as accurate as the root cause analysis identifies the contributing items that facilitated the event, as they do not capture the essence or value of conducting a root cause analysis. The root cause analysis ensures that proper timelines were documented is a possible outcome or benefit of conducting a root cause analysis, but it is not the best reason for doing so. Documenting timelines can help to establish the sequence of events and actions that led to the problem, but it does not necessarily identify or address the root causes. The root cause analysis allows the incident to be properly documented for reporting is also a possible outcome or benefit of conducting a root cause analysis, but it is not the best reason for doing so. Documenting and reporting incidents can help to communicate and share information about problems and solutions, but it does not necessarily identify or address the root causes. The root cause analysis develops recommendations to improve the process is another possible outcome or benefit of conducting a root cause analysis, but it is not the best reason for doing so. Developing recommendations can help to implement solutions and prevent future problems, but it does not necessarily identify or address the root causes.
NEW QUESTION # 229
During the log analysis phase, the following suspicious command is detected:
Which of the following is being attempted?
- A. RCE
- B. ICMP tunneling
- C. Smurf attack
- D. Buffer overflow
Answer: A
Explanation:
RCE stands for remote code execution, which is a type of attack that allows an attacker to execute arbitrary commands on a target system. The suspicious command in the question is an example of RCE, as it tries to download and execute a malicious file from a remote server using the wget and chmod commands. A buffer overflow is a type of vulnerability that occurs when a program writes more data to a memory buffer than it can hold, potentially overwriting other memory locations and corrupting the program's execution. ICMP tunneling is a technique that uses ICMP packets to encapsulate and transmit data that would normally be blocked by firewalls or filters. A smurf attack is a type of DDoS attack that floods a network with ICMP echo requests, causing all devices on the network to reply and generate a large amount of traffic.
NEW QUESTION # 230
A cloud team received an alert that unauthorized resources were being auto-provisioned. After investigating, the team suspects that cryptomining is occurring. Which of the following indicators would most likely lead the team to this conclusion?
- A. Unauthorized changes
- B. Unusual traffic spikes
- C. High GPU utilization
- D. Bandwidth consumption
Answer: C
Explanation:
High GPU utilization is the most likely indicator that cryptomining is occurring, as it reflects the intensive computational work that is required to solve the complex mathematical problems involved in mining cryptocurrencies. Cryptomining is the process of generating new units of a cryptocurrency by using computing power to verify transactions and create new blocks on the blockchain. Cryptomining can be done legitimately by individuals or groups who participate in a mining pool and share the rewards, or illegitimately by threat actors who use malware or scripts to hijack the computing resources of unsuspecting victims and use them for their own benefit. This practice is called cryptojacking, and it can cause performance degradation, increased power consumption, and security risks for the affected systems. Cryptomining typically relies on the GPU (graphics processing unit) rather than the CPU (central processing unit), as the GPU is better suited for parallel processing and can handle more calculations per second. Therefore, a high GPU utilization rate can be a sign that cryptomining is taking place on a system, especially if there is no other explanation for the increased workload. The other options are not as indicative of cryptomining as high GPU utilization, as they can have other causes or explanations.
Bandwidth consumption can be affected by many factors, such as network traffic, streaming services, downloads, or updates. It is not directly related to cryptomining, which does not require a lot of bandwidth to communicate with the mining pool or the blockchain network. Unauthorized changes can be a result of many types of malware or cyberattacks, such as ransomware, spyware, or trojans. They are not specific to cryptomining, which does not necessarily alter any files or settings on the system, but rather uses its processing power. Unusual traffic spikes can also be caused by various factors, such as legitimate surges in demand, distributed denial-of- service attacks, or botnets. They are not indicative of cryptomining, which does not generate a lot of traffic or requests to or from the system.
NEW QUESTION # 231
A virtual web server in a server pool was infected with malware after an analyst used the internet to research a system issue. After the server was rebuilt and added back into the server pool, users reported issues with the website, indicating the site could not be trusted. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the server issue?
- A. The malware infected all the web servers in the pool.
- B. The digital certificate on the web server was self-signed.
- C. The server was configured to use SSL to securely transmit data.
- D. The server was supporting weak TLS protocols for client connections.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A digital certificate is a document that contains the public key and identity information of a web server, and is signed by a trusted third-party authority called a certificate authority (CA). A digital certificate allows the web server to establish a secure connection with the clients using the HTTPS protocol, and also verifies the authenticity of the web server. A self-signed certificate is a digital certificate that is not signed by a CA, but by the web server itself. A self-signed certificate can cause issues with the website, as it may not be trusted by the clients or their browsers.
Clients may receive warnings or errors when trying to access the website, indicating that the site could not be trusted or that the connection is not secure.
NEW QUESTION # 232
A Chief Information Security Officer wants to map all the attack vectors that the company faces each day. Which of the following recommendations should the company align their security controls around?
- A. OWASP
- B. MITRE ATT&CK
- C. Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis
- D. OSSTMM
Answer: B
Explanation:
MITRE ATT&CK is a framework that maps the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) of various threat actors and groups, based on real-world observations and dat a. MITRE ATT&CK can help a Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) to map all the attack vectors that the company faces each day, as well as to align their security controls around the most relevant and prevalent threats. MITRE ATT&CK can also help the CISO to assess the effectiveness and maturity of their security posture, as well as to identify and prioritize the gaps and improvements.
NEW QUESTION # 233
A systems administrator notices unfamiliar directory names on a production server. The administrator reviews the directory listings and files, and then concludes the server has been compromised. Which of the following steps should the administrator take next?
- A. Inform the internal incident response team.
- B. Review the lessons learned for the best approach.
- C. Follow the company's incident response plan.
- D. Determine when the access started.
Answer: C
Explanation:
An incident response plan is a set of predefined procedures and guidelines that an organization follows when faced with a security breach or attack. An incident response plan helps to ensure that the organization can quickly and effectively contain, analyze, eradicate, and recover from the incident, as well as prevent or minimize the damage and impact to the business operations, reputation, and customers. An incident response plan also defines the roles and responsibilities of the incident response team, the communication channels and protocols, the escalation and reporting procedures, and the tools and resources available for the incident response. By following the company's incident response plan, the administrator can ensure that they are following the best practices and standards for handling a security incident, and that they are coordinating and collaborating with the relevant stakeholders and authorities. Following the company's incident response plan can also help to avoid or reduce any legal, regulatory, or contractual liabilities or penalties that may arise from the incident. The other options are not as effective or appropriate as following the company's incident response plan. Informing the internal incident response team (A) is a good step, but it should be done according to the company's incident response plan, which may specify who, when, how, and what to report. Reviewing the lessons learned for the best approach ?is a good step, but it should be done after the incident has been resolved and closed, not during the active response phase. Determining when the access started (D) is a good step, but it should be done as part of the analysis phase of the incident response plan, not before following the plan.
NEW QUESTION # 234
Which of the following entities should an incident manager work with to ensure correct processes are adhered to when communicating incident reporting to the general public, as a best practice? (Select two).
- A. Governance
- B. Law enforcement
- C. Legal
- D. Human resources
- E. Public relations
- F. Manager
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
An incident manager should work with the legal and public relations entities to ensure correct processes are adhered to when communicating incident reporting to the general public, as a best practice. The legal entity can provide guidance on the legal implications and obligations of disclosing the incident, such as compliance with data protection laws, contractual obligations, and liability issues. The public relations entity can help craft the appropriate message and tone for the public communication, as well as manage the reputation and image of the organization in the aftermath of the incident. These two entities can help the incident manager balance the need for transparency and accountability with the need for confidentiality and security12.
References: Incident Communication Templates, Incident Management: Processes, Best Practices & Tools - Atlassian
NEW QUESTION # 235
Which of the following responsibilities does the legal team have during an incident management event? (Select two).
- A. Conduct computer and network damage assessments for insurance.
- B. Verify that all security personnel have the appropriate clearances.
- C. Coordinate additional or temporary staffing for recovery efforts.
- D. Ensure all system security devices and procedures are in place.
- E. Advise the incident response team on matters related to regulatory reporting.
- F. Review and approve new contracts acquired as a result of an event.
Answer: E,F
Explanation:
The legal team plays a crucial role in managing the legal and compliance aspects of incident response. They review and approve contracts (B) for emergency services, like incident response firms, and provide guidance on regulatory reporting (C), ensuring the organization meets compliance requirements. According to CompTIA Security+ guidelines, legal teams focus on regulatory and contractual matters rather than operational aspects like staffing (A) or security procedures (D).
NEW QUESTION # 236
A security analyst received an alert regarding multiple successful MFA log-ins for a particular user. When reviewing the authentication logs, the analyst sees the following:
Which of the following are most likely occurring, base on the MFA logs? (Choose two.)
- A. Impossible geo-velocity
- B. Subscriber identity module swapping
- C. Rogue access point
- D. Password spray
- E. Dictionary attack
- F. Push phishing
Answer: A,F
Explanation:
Impossible geo-velocity: This is an event where a single user's account is accessed from different geographical locations within a timeframe that is impossible for normal human travel. In the log, we can see that the user "jdoe" is accessing from the United States and then within a few minutes from Russia, which is practically impossible to achieve without the use of some form of automated system or if the account credentials are being used by different individuals in different locations.
Push phishing: This could also be an indication of push phishing, where the user is tricked into approving a multi-factor authentication request that they did not initiate. This is less clear from the logs directly, but it could be inferred if the user is receiving MFA requests that they are not initiating and are being approved without their genuine desire to access the resources.
NEW QUESTION # 237
An analyst is trying to capture anomalous traffic from a compromised host. Which of the following are the best tools for achieving this objective? (Choose two.)
- A. SOAR
- B. SIEM
- C. Wireshark
- D. tcpdump
- E. Nmap
- F. Vulnerability scanner
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
To capture and analyze network traffic, the two best tools are:
tcpdump - A command-line packet capture tool used for network traffic analysis.
Wireshark - A GUI-based network packet analysis tool that provides deep inspection capabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 238
Which of the following is a useful tool for mapping, tracking, and mitigating identified threats and vulnerabilities with the likelihood and impact of occurrence?
- A. Compliance report
- B. Penetration test
- C. Vulnerability assessment
- D. Risk register
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 239
A company classifies security groups by risk level. Any group with a high-risk classification requires multiple levels of approval for member or owner changes. Which of the following inhibitors to remediation is the company utilizing?
- A. Business process interruption
- B. Organizational governance
- C. MOU
- D. SLA
Answer: B
Explanation:
This scenario describes a strict governance policy requiring multiple approvals for high-risk security group changes. Organizational governance refers to policies that enforce security controls and approval workflows.
NEW QUESTION # 240
An analyst recommends that an EDR agent collect the source IP address, make a connection to the firewall, and create a policy to block the malicious source IP address across the entire network automatically. Which of the following is the best option to help the analyst implement this recommendation?
- A. SOAR
- B. SIEM
- C. SLA
- D. IoC
Answer: A
Explanation:
SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) is the best option to help the analyst implement the recommendation, as it reflects the software solution that enables security teams to integrate and coordinate separate tools into streamlined threat response workflows and automate repetitive tasks. SOAR is a term coined by Gartner in 2015 to describe a technology that combines the functions of security incident response platforms, security orchestration and automation platforms, and threat intelligence platforms in one offering. SOAR solutions help security teams to collect inputs from various sources, such as EDR agents, firewalls, or SIEM systems, and perform analysis and triage using a combination of human and machine power. SOAR solutions also allow security teams to define and execute incident response procedures in a digital workflow format, using automation to perform low-level tasks or actions, such as blocking an IP address or quarantining a device. SOAR solutions can help security teams to improve efficiency, consistency, and scalability of their operations, as well as reduce mean time to detect (MTTD) and mean time to respond (MTTR) to threats. The other options are not as suitable as SOAR, as they do not match the description or purpose of the recommendation. SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) is a software solution that collects and analyzes data from various sources, such as logs, events, or alerts, and provides security monitoring, threat detection, and incident response capabilities. SIEM solutions can help security teams to gain visibility, correlation, and context of their security data, but they do not provide automation or orchestration features like SOAR solutions. SLA (Service Level Agreement) is a document that defines the expectations and responsibilities between a service provider and a customer, such as the quality, availability, or performance of the service. SLAs can help to manage customer expectations, formalize communication, and improve productivity and relationships, but they do not help to implement technical recommendations like SOAR solutions. IoC (Indicator of Compromise) is a piece of data or evidence that suggests a system or network has been compromised by a threat actor, such as an IP address, a file hash, or a registry key. IoCs can help to identify and analyze malicious activities or incidents, but they do not help to implement response actions like SOAR solutions.
NEW QUESTION # 241
A cybersecurity team has witnessed numerous vulnerability events recently that have affected operating systems. The team decides to implement host-based IPS, firewalls, and two-factor authentication. Which of the following does this most likely describe?
- A. Continuous authorization
- B. Secure access service edge
- C. Hybrid network architecture
- D. System hardening
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is
A) System hardening.
System hardening is the process of securing a system by reducing its attack surface, applying patches and updates, configuring security settings, and implementing security controls. System hardening can help prevent or mitigate vulnerability events that may affect operating systems. Host-based IPS, firewalls, and two-factor authentication are examples of security controls that can be applied to harden a system1.
The other options are not the best descriptions of the scenario. A hybrid network architecture (B) is a network design that combines on-premises and cloud-based resources, which may or may not involve system hardening. Continuous authorization is a security approach that monitors and validates the security posture of a system on an ongoing basis, which is different from system hardening. Secure access service edge (D) is a network architecture that delivers cloud-based security services to remote users and devices, which is also different from system hardening.
NEW QUESTION # 242
A company brings in a consultant to make improvements to its website. After the consultant leaves. a web developer notices unusual activity on the website and submits a suspicious file containing the following code to the security team:
Which of the following did the consultant do?
Implanted a backdoor
Implemented privilege escalation
Implemented clickjacking
Patched the web server
- A. Implanted a backdoor.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A backdoor is a method that allows an unauthorized user to access a system or network without the permission or knowledge of the owner. A backdoor can be installed by exploiting a software vulnerability, by using malware, or by physically modifying the hardware or firmware of the device. A backdoor can be used for various malicious purposes, such as stealing data, installing malware, executing commands, or taking control of the system.
In this case, the consultant implanted a backdoor in the website by using an HTML and PHP code snippet that displays an image of a shutdown button and an alert message that says "Exit". However, the code also echoes the remote address of the server, which means that it sends the IP address of the visitor to the attacker. This way, the attacker can identify and target the visitors of the website and use their IP addresses to launch further attacks or gain access to their devices.
The code snippet is an example of a clickjacking attack, which is a type of interface-based attack that tricks a user into clicking on a hidden or disguised element on a webpage. However, clickjacking is not the main goal of the consultant, but rather a means to implant the backdoor. Therefore, option C is incorrect.
Option B is also incorrect because privilege escalation is an attack technique that allows an attacker to gain higher or more permissions than they are supposed to have on a system or network. Privilege escalation can be achieved by exploiting a software vulnerability, by using malware, or by abusing misconfigurations or weak access controls. However, there is no evidence that the consultant implemented privilege escalation on the website or gained any elevated privileges.
Option D is also incorrect because patching is a process of applying updates to software to fix errors, improve performance, or enhance security. Patching can prevent or mitigate various types of attacks, such as exploits, malware infections, or denial-of-service attacks. However, there is no indication that the consultant patched the web server or improved its security in any way.
Explanation:
The correct answer is
Reference:
1 What Is a Backdoor & How to Prevent Backdoor Attacks (2023)
2 What is Clickjacking? Tutorial & Examples | Web Security Academy
3 What Is Privilege Escalation and How It Relates to Web Security | Acunetix
4 What Is Patching? | Best Practices For Patch Management - cWatch Blog
NEW QUESTION # 243
While reviewing web server logs, a security analyst discovers the following suspicious line:
Which of the following is being attempted?
- A. Command injection
- B. Reverse shell
- C. Remote file inclusion
- D. Server-side request forgery
Answer: A
Explanation:
The suspicious line in the web server logs is an attempt to execute a command on the server, indicating a command injection attack.References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter
5, page 197; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5, page 205.
NEW QUESTION # 244
You are a penetration tester who is reviewing the system hardening guidelines for a company.
Hardening guidelines indicate the following.
There must be one primary server or service per device.
Only default port should be used
Non- secure protocols should be disabled.
The corporate internet presence should be placed in a protected subnet
Instructions :
Using the available tools, discover devices on the corporate network and the services running on these devices.
You must determine
ip address of each device
The primary server or service each device
The protocols that should be disabled based on the hardening guidelines
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 245
An employee downloads a freeware program to change the desktop to the classic look of legacy Windows.
Shortly after the employee installs the program, a high volume of random DNS queries begin to originate from the system. An investigation on the system reveals the following:
Add-MpPreference -ExclusionPath '%Program Filest\ksysconfig'
Which of the following is possibly occurring?
- A. Defense evasion
- B. Credential harvesting
- C. Persistence
- D. Privilege escalation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Defense evasion is the technique of avoiding detection or prevention by security tools or mechanisms. In this case, the freeware program is likely a malware that generates random DNS queries to communicate with a command and control server or exfiltrate data. The command Add-MpPreference -ExclusionPath '%Program Filest\ksysconfig' is used to add an exclusion path to Windows Defender, which is a built-in antivirus software, to prevent it from scanning the malware folder. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5, page 204; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5, page 212. pr
NEW QUESTION # 246
After a recent vulnerability report for a server is presented, a business must decide whether to secure the company's web-based storefront or shut it down. The developer is not able to fix the zero-day vulnerability because a patch does not exist yet. Which of the following is the best option for the business?
- A. Put a WAF in front of the storefront.
- B. Identify the degrading functionality.
- C. Limit the API request for new transactions until a patch exists.
- D. Take the storefront offline until a patch exists.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A WAF enforces input validation rules, which prevent attackers from sending malicious payloads to the application: Filters or sanitizes requests for SQL, XSS, and other injection attempts. Blocks unauthorized file uploads or parameter tampering.
NEW QUESTION # 247
An organization receives a legal hold request from an attorney. The request pertains to emails related to a disputed vendor contract. Which of the following is the first step for the security team to take to ensure compliance with the request?
- A. Establish a chain of custody, starting with the attorney's request.
- B. Notify the departments involved to preserve potentially relevant information.
- C. Back up the mailboxes on the server and provide the attorney with a copy.
- D. Publicly disclose the request to other vendors.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The first step for the security team when receiving a legal hold request is to notify the relevant departments to preserve all potentially relevant information. This ensures that no data is altered, deleted, or otherwise tampered with, which is critical for maintaining the integrity of the evidence. Preserving information includes emails, documents, and any other data that might be relevant to the legal matter. Establishing a chain of custody and backing up data are also important steps, but notifying the involved parties is the immediate priority to prevent data loss.
NEW QUESTION # 248
Two employees in the finance department installed a freeware application that contained embedded malware.
The network is robustly segmented based on areas of responsibility. These computers had critical sensitive information stored locally that needs to be recovered. The department manager advised all department employees to turn off their computers until the security team could be contacted about the issue. Which of the following is the first step the incident response staff members should take when they arrive?
- A. Segment the entire department from the network and review each computer offline.
- B. Identify and remove the software installed on the impacted systems in the department.
- C. Log on to the impacted systems with an administrator account that has privileges to perform backups.
- D. Turn on all systems, scan for infection, and back up data to a USB storage device.
- E. Explain that malware cannot truly be removed and then reimage the devices.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Segmenting the entire department from the network and reviewing each computer offline is the first step the incident response staff members should take when they arrive. This step can help contain the malware infection and prevent it from spreading to other systems or networks. Reviewing each computer offline can help identify the source and scope of the infection, and determine the best course of action for recovery12.
Turning on all systems, scanning for infection, and backing up data to a USB storage device is a risky step, as it can activate the malware and cause further damage or data loss. It can also compromise the USB storage device and any other system that connects to it. Identifying and removing the software installed on the impacted systems in the department is a possible step, but it should be done after segmenting the department from the network and reviewing each computer offline. Explaining that malware cannot truly be removed and then reimaging the devices is a drastic step, as it can result in data loss and downtime. It should be done only as a last resort, and after backing up the data and verifying its integrity. Logging on to the impacted systems with an administrator account that has privileges to perform backups is a dangerous step, as it can expose the administrator credentials and privileges to the malware, and allow it to escalate its access and capabilities34.
References: Incident Response: Processes, Best Practices & Tools - Atlassian, Incident Response Best Practices | SANS Institute, Malware Removal: How to Remove Malware from Your Device, How to Remove Malware From Your PC | PCMag
NEW QUESTION # 249
An organization conducted a web application vulnerability assessment against the corporate website, and the following output was observed:
Which of the following tuning recommendations should the security analyst share?
- A. Configure an Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to authorized domains
- B. Set an HttpOnlvflaq to force communication by HTTPS
- C. Block requests without an X-Frame-Options header
- D. Disable the cross-origin resource sharing header
Answer: C
Explanation:
The output shows that the web application is vulnerable to clickjacking attacks, which allow an attacker to overlay a hidden frame on top of a legitimate page and trick users into clicking on malicious links. Blocking requests without an X-Frame-Options header can prevent this attack by instructing the browser to not display the page within a frame.
NEW QUESTION # 250
A security analyst obtained the following table of results from a recent vulnerability assessment that was conducted against a single web server in the environment:
Which of the following should be completed first to remediate the findings?
- A. Perform proper sanitization on all fields
- B. Purchase an appropriate certificate from a trusted root CA
- C. Ask the web development team to update the page contents
- D. Add the IP address allow listing for control panel access
Answer: A
Explanation:
The first action that should be completed to remediate the findings is to perform proper sanitization on all fields. Sanitization is a process that involves validating, filtering, or encoding any user input or data before processing or storing it on a system or application. Sanitization can help prevent various types of attacks, such as cross-site scripting (XSS), SQL injection, or command injection, that exploit unsanitized input or data to execute malicious scripts, commands, or queries on a system or application. Performing proper sanitization on all fields can help address the most critical and common vulnerability found during the vulnerability assessment, which is XSS.
NEW QUESTION # 251
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CS0-003 Certification - The Ultimate Guide: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1M1QArTSARv-JweFrFQAhfVu2c4RCcB6U